MCAS Physics Exams
MCAS 2026 Session 1
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1.
A motorcycle has an initial velocity of 12 m/s. It then accelerates at 3 m/s
2
for 2 s.
What is the final velocity of the motorcycle after the 2 s time period?
A 7 m/s
B 12 m/s
C 18 m/s
D 24 m/s
The diagram shows a simple circuit.
Which of the following could be added at point
W
to increase the brightness of
the light bulb in the circuit?
A device is used to detect cars that are stopped at a traffic light. The device
emits infrared light and then detects returning infrared light, as shown.
Which of the following best describes how this device works?
A It emits mechanical waves that reflect off a car.
B It emits mechanical waves that resonate with a car.
C It emits electromagnetic waves that reflect off a car.
D It emits electromagnetic waves that resonate with a car.
A free-body force diagram for a 2 kg object is shown.
What is the magnitude of the object’s acceleration?
A 4 m/s
2
B 6 m/s
2
C 14 m/s
2
D 20 m/s
2
Two negatively charged objects have electrostatic and gravitational forces between them. Which of the following explains one way the electrostatic and gravitational forces are similar?
A Both types of forces are always attractive.
B Both types of forces occur only if the objects are in contact with each other.
C Both types of forces would increase in strength if the masses of the objects decreased.
D Both types of forces would decrease in strength if the distance between the objects increased.
An airplane is traveling at a velocity of 80 m/s when it lands on the ground. As soon as the airplane touches the ground, it undergoes a constant acceleration of −5.0 m/s
2
and its velocity decreases to 10 m/s in 14 s.
Which of the following equations can be used to determine the distance the airplane travels as it slows from 80 m/s to 10 m/s?
A. Δx = 0 + 1 2 (−5.0 m/s
2
)(14 s)
2
B. Δx = (80 m/s)(−5.0 m/s
2
)(14 s)
C. Δx = 80 m/s + (−5.0 m/s
2
)(14 s)
D. Δx = (80 m/s)(14 s) + 1 2 −5.0 m/s
2
)(14 s)
2
Cobalt-60 is a radioactive isotope that undergoes two processes, process 1 and process 2, when it decays. The diagrams show the processes.
Part A
Which of the following best describes the energy involved in process 1?
A The nucleus absorbs kinetic energy.
B The emitted electron has kinetic energy.
C The nucleus absorbs electromagnetic energy.
D The emitted electron has chemical potential energy.
Part B
Which of the following best explains why a photon is emitted during process 2?
A to reduce the nucleus size
B to change the type of nucleus
C to make the nucleus more stable
D to increase the temperature of the nucleus
Two bar magnets, X and Y, are initially placed 0.01 m apart with their north poles facing each other. Magnet Y is then rotated so its south pole faces the north pole of magnet X. The diagrams show the initial setup and the final setup, after magnet Y is rotated?
Which of the following best describes how the force exerted on magnet X is affected when magnet Y is rotated?
A The magnitude of the force decreases and the direction of the force reverses.
B The magnitude of the force stays the same and the direction of the force reverses.
C The magnitude of the force increases and the direction of the force stays the same.
D The magnitude of the force stays the same and the direction of the force stays the same.
Two beams of light, X and Y, shine on a metal surface and eject electrons from the surface. Light X ejects electrons that have a greater amount of energy than the electrons light Y ejects.
Which of the following best compares light X and light Y?
A Light X's speed is less than light Y's.
B Light X's speed is greater than light Y's.
C Light X's frequency is less than light Y's.
D Light X's frequency is greater than light Y's.
Which of the following questions would be most useful to ask to determine whether a wave is transverse or longitudinal?
A Can the wave travel through solids?
B Does the wave have a measurable frequency?
C In what direction do particles move relative to the direction the wave moves?
D Is the wave generated by electromagnetic radiation or by a mechanical force?
A positively charged particle and a negatively charged particle that are surrounded by an electric field are shown in the diagram. Three locations in the electric field are labeled X, Y, and Z.
Which of the following best describes the strength of the electric field for two locations?
A. Location X has the weakest electric field, and location Z has the strongest electric field.
B. Location Y has the weakest electric field, and location Z has the strongest electric field.
C. Location Y has the weakest electric field, and location X has the strongest electric field.
D. Location Z has the weakest electric field, and location Y has the strongest electric field.
Part A.
A generator converts
A mechanical energy into electrical energy
B electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Part B.
The generator converts energy by using the forces that act on charges as a result of a changing
A gravitational field.
B magnetic field
Questions 13-16. The following section focuses on an investigation about collisions.
Read the information below and use it to answer the selected-response questions and constructed-response question that follow.
A group of students conducted an investigation to learn about collisions. The students used an air track and two gliders, X and Y. Friction was negligible on the air track. The investigation had the following steps:
The spring pushed glider X.
Glider X moved a distance of 0.7 m to the right at a constant velocity.
Glider X collided with glider Y.
The diagram shows glider X moving toward glider Y after glider X was pushed by the spring.
The students recorded the data from three trials of the investigation. A negative velocity indicates that the glider moved to the left, and a positive velocity indicates that the glider moved to the right. The data are shown in the table. No velocity data were recorded for glider Y after the collisions.
In trial 1, which of the following best explains what happened to the kinetic energy of glider X after it collided with glider Y?
A The kinetic energy of glider X decreased because some kinetic energy was transferred to glider Y.
B The kinetic energy of glider X decreased to zero because all of the kinetic energy was transferred to glider Y.
C The kinetic energy of glider X increased because some kinetic energy was transferred from glider Y to glider X.
D The kinetic energy of glider X remained the same because no kinetic energy was transferred between the gliders.
The students made an incomplete model of the momentum of each glider before and after the collision in trial 2. In the model, the length of each arrow represents the magnitude of the momentum.
Which of the following arrows best completes the model?
The graph shows the velocity of glider X as it moved 0.7 m toward glider Y.
Time Velocity Which of the following graphs shows the position of glider X as it moved the 0.7 m toward glider Y?
During trial 1, glider X was moving to the right before the collision with glider Y, and then moved to the left after the collision with glider Y.
Part A.
Based on the data table, calculate the momentum of glider X before the collision in trial 1. Show your calculations and include units in your answer.
Part B.
Calculate the change in momentum of glider X that resulted from the collision in trial 1. Show your calculations and include units in your answer.
Part C.
In trial 1, the collision between glider X and glider Y occurred over 0.01 s. Calculate the average force applied to glider X during the collision. Show your calculations and include units in your answer.
The circuit shown has a total current of 0.3 A.
A resistor is added to the circuit so that the total current in the circuit is 0.7 A. Which diagram shows the new circuit with a total current of 0.7 A?
The efficiencies of two devices, device X and device Y, are shown in the table.
If 95.0 J of energy is added to each device, what will be the difference in the output energies from the devices?
A The output energy of device X will be 11.4 J less than the output energy of device Y.
B The output energy of device X will be 90.5 J less than the output energy of device Y.
C The output energy of device X will be 11.4 J more than the output energy of device Y.
D The output energy of device X will be 90.5 J more than the output energy of device Y.
This question has four parts.
Homemade ice cream can be made using a metal container in a bucket. The metal container is filled with the ice cream ingredients (cream, sugar, and flavoring). The bucket is filled with salty water and ice cubes. The ice cream
ingredients are stirred using a handle. The diagram shows the ice cream maker.
Part A.
The parts of the ice cream maker system have different initial temperatures.
• The metal container and the ingredients both have an initial temperature of 10°C.
• The salty water with ice cubes has an initial temperature of –15°C.
The temperature of the air surrounding the bucket is 20°C.
Draw an arrow pointing left or right in each box to show how heat flows through the system.
top left box: Towards the right
top left box: Towards the left
bottom right box: Towards the right
bottom right box: Towards the left
Part B.
The ingredients for vanilla ice cream have a specific heat of 3.22 J/g • °C and a freezing point of –5.6°C.
Calculate the amount of thermal energy transfer required to reduce the temperature of 1500 g of vanilla ice cream ingredients from 10°C to –5.6°C. Show your calculations and include units in your answer.
Part C.
The ingredients for chocolate ice cream have a specific heat of 3.11 J/g • °C and a freezing point of –5.6°C.
Identify whether reducing the temperature of 1500 g of chocolate ice cream ingredients from 10°C to –5.6°C will require more, less, or the same amount of thermal energy transfer as is required to reduce 1500 g of vanilla
ice cream ingredients from 10°C to –5.6°C. Explain your reasoning.
Part D.
As the ice cream is being made, the temperature of the salty water with ice cubes is constant.
Explain how there can be thermal energy transfer between the metal container and the salty water without the temperature of the salty water changing.
The question has four parts. Be sure to label each part of your response.
Pipe organs are musical instruments that produce sound waves using pipes. Each pipe is designed to produce a sound wave with a specific frequency when a key is pressed. A pipe organ is shown.
Part A.
A sound wave reaches the end of an organ pipe, is reflected, and then constructively interferes with another sound wave.
Which of the following best describes what happens in the resulting wave when the sound waves constructively interfere?
A The amplitude is less than that of the original waves.
B The amplitude is greater than that of the original waves.
C The wavelength is less than that of the original waves.
D The wavelength is greater than that of the original waves.
Part B.
An organ pipe produces a sound wave with a frequency of 20 Hz. Calculate the period of the sound wave. Show your calculations and include units in your answer.
Part C.
The 20 Hz sound wave travels through the air at a speed of 343 m/s. Calculate the wavelength of the sound wave. Show your calculations and include units in your answer
Part D.
A different pipe from the same organ produces a sound wave with a frequency of 32 Hz. Identify whether the wavelength of the 32 Hz sound wave is longer than, shorter than, or equal to the wavelength of the 20 Hz sound wave. Explain your reasoning
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1998 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 1)
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1998 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 2)
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1999 Physics Olympiad Screening Test (Part 1)
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1999 Physics Olympiad Screening Test (Part 2)
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1999 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 1)
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1999 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 2)
AAPT -
2000 Physics Olympiad Screening Test (Part 2)
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2000 Physics Olympiad Screening Test (Part 2)
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2000 Physics Quiz Bowl (21-40)
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2000 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 1)
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2006 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 1)
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2006 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 2)
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2007 Physics Quiz Bowl (Part 1)
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PhysicsBowl 2009 (Part 2)
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